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Originally posted by fmsmitty:
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Originally posted by Mobycat:
[b]
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Originally posted by fmsmitty:
[b]What do you think the founding fathers of this country used to dictate laws? Has society perverted itself that far?

ps. I saw you the other day on the road. Nice looking truck. [ThumbsUp]
OK, let's assume that was what they intended.

Why aren't commandments 1, 2, 3, 4, 9 and 10 codified in any sort?

And WHICH commandments were they going by? The Protestant? Catholic? Hebrew? All three have different parts.[/b]
Let's assume? You've already proved that they have as per your next statement. And that was just in the ten commandments.[/b]
No I haven't. The commandments that DO have laws like them are commandments that AFFECT SOMEONE ELSE. I.E. crime against someone else. Someone else can be hurt by it.

Here's a good quote for you: ""The legitimate powers of government extend to such acts only as are injurious to others." --Thomas Jefferson: Notes on Virginia, 1782. ME 2:221

Here's another: ""Common sense [is] the foundation of all authorities, of the laws themselves, and of their construction." --Thomas Jefferson: Batture at New Orleans, 1812. ME 18:92"

(yep...sure see "christian" or "religion" or "judeo-christian" in THAT sentence. :rolleyes:

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Second, have you looked at the different versions of the Ten Commandments? They are essentially the same. Different parts - Same meaning.
Yes I have. And they are still different. Show me where in the Protestant and Catholic commandments there is anything like the Hebrew's first commandment: "I am the Lord thy God, who brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of slavery."
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"Nature has constituted utility to man the standard and test of virtue. Men living in different countries, under different circumstances, different habits and regimens, may have different utilities; the same act, therefore, may be useful and consequently virtuous in one country which is injurious and vicious in another differently circumstanced" - Thomas Jefferson, moral relativist