Originally posted by NY Madman:
A clever use of semantics. Can someone be a murdering homophobe without a dead homosexual victim?
There is a dead homosexual victim -- the guy he's in prison for killing in the first place.

As I said previously the guy may have liked to have sex with young children but he also liked to have sex with teenage boys. That clearly makes him a homosexual regardless of any apologist spin you try to put on the issue. A deviant individual can be both a pedophile and a homosexual.
Yes, a person can be both, but the fact of his sexuality hasn't changed, it just wasn't an issue when he was convicted of pedophilia. Now that he's dead at the hands of a self-described homophobe, it's become an issue. Simple as that.