Madman, you are wrong on both counts - the Alabama case and the Texas case.

14th Amendment makes the First Amendment apply to states as well (until the 14th, it didn't).

"No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States"

And yes, the Court has ruled on that before. As early as the 1920s.
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"Nature has constituted utility to man the standard and test of virtue. Men living in different countries, under different circumstances, different habits and regimens, may have different utilities; the same act, therefore, may be useful and consequently virtuous in one country which is injurious and vicious in another differently circumstanced" - Thomas Jefferson, moral relativist