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Originally posted by NY Madman:
Even if that 28% figure were true, what is the breakdown of females to males within that 28%. Females get it from having sex with bisexual males. A more pertinant figure would be... how many heterosexual males are getting AIDS from heterosexual contact. Are they afraid to reveal these figures? I don't see any. The infection rate for intravenous drug users has sharply declined over the years so we are basically left with homosexuals and bisexuals as the main culprits in the spread of AIDS in North America and Europe.
Again, it hasn't *sharply* declined for any group. For drug users, it has remained fairly constant. The figures are on the CDC website: CDC AIDS Cases by exposure category

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Yeah sure... heterosexuals are promiscuous. No where near the rate of promiscuity amongst male homosexuals. Have you ever seen a heterosexual bath house?
Yes I have. The legal ones are in Nevada (but at least there, they get checked regularly). I'm curious where there is data showing the comparison of promiscousness between ANY group.

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If they can avoid bisexual men then their rate of infection would drastically be reduced and there would be fewer children born with this disease.
There aren't THAT many bisexual men out there to "drastically" redue the infection rate. But...that did make me notice one thing - I don't see anywhere on the CDC website showing how many babies are born with it. The closest thing is an article saying the CDC estimated it to be 280-370 in 2000 (consider in 1991 is was about 1760 in 1991). Source
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"Nature has constituted utility to man the standard and test of virtue. Men living in different countries, under different circumstances, different habits and regimens, may have different utilities; the same act, therefore, may be useful and consequently virtuous in one country which is injurious and vicious in another differently circumstanced" - Thomas Jefferson, moral relativist